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If you have a free ball and you hit the free ball and you sink a red afterwards - would it count? |
If you have a free ball and you hit the free ball and you sink a red afterwards - would it count? Only if you were playing the free ball as a red. Assuming you are playing snooker then a free ball is one shot only and is assumed to be a red. You can't snooker your opponent from a free ball. In pool then a free ball is an extra shot and providing you don't foul on it, yiou can then pot your colour. If we are talking snooker and the following situation (your question is slightly vaguely worded): You are snookered from a foul stroke allowing you a free ball. You play your shot, hitting the nominated object ball, however the cue ball (or the object ball) causes one of the red balls which you did not directly play to be potted. In this case, yes, the red potted counts in the same way as a red potted by fluke in the cause of playing a legitimate shot on another red counts. yes just call it a fluke Yes it would Normally, a free ball can be chosen to represent any colour.You must then go after the next ball in sequence.eg. If you're snookered on a red, take,say, the black as a free ball (counting 1 point as a red) your next ball must be a colour. If there are only the colours left and you are snookered on the yellow you could again take,say, the black as free ball (2pts for yellow)..you now have to go for the real yellow. If you mean that you've taken the (say) black as a free ball, the black or cue ball or another ball then hits a red in, then it would count (just as potting two reds together counts). Until the next shot, that free ball would be an extra red . Played in a snooker league for years. |
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